Few Qs about the bell curve.
1. I have an extreme outlier over a reasonable cash sample of about 675k hands. Straights is at the extreme end of unlucky.
I'm wondering how this stat is calculated? Eg; I think I had a leak for a while of overfolding OOP vs barrels with OESD. And maybe folding SD in other situations where I shouldn't be (overfolding gutshots in IP 3BP as PFC) etc.
Is this potentially the explanation for this outlier, or is this statistic not calculated this way; but instead only calculated when you call a bet and don't make your hit?
2. Does the bell curve have much practical utility beyond just being a different measure of variance? I suppose if it turns out my outlier can be explained by overfolds then that would prove it serves a practical purpose.
